Health MCQ: March 2019

Archive for March 2019

A ________ is a health care clinic that, in addition to physician services, utilizes providers such as physician assistants and nurse practitioners, and is located in an underserved rural area.

A ________ is a health care clinic that, in addition to physician services, utilizes providers such as physician assistants and nurse practitioners,...

A ___ is a secure method of patients access to his or her own info through a facility's electronic info system.

A ___ is a secure method of patients access to his or her own info through a facility's electronic info system. Answer: patient porta...

_ are guidance documents published by medicare administrative contractors (MACs) that include info on codes that indicate medical necessity of services. these policies apply to services covered under Medicare in the region served by the contractor.

_ are guidance documents published by medicare administrative contractors (MACs) that include info on codes that indicate medical necessity of services....

A ____ is a nonprofit or public organization that provides or arranges for comprehensive health care services to a medically underserved area or population.

A ____ is a nonprofit or public organization that provides or arranges for comprehensive health care services to a medically underserved area or population. Answer: federally...

The _______ is the office in the department of health and human services responsible for monitoring compliance with reimbursement laws and regulations.

The _______ is the office in the department of health and human services responsible for monitoring compliance with reimbursement laws and regulations. Answer: office...

___is an arrangement by which one physician temporarily works in place of another physician.

___is an arrangement by which one physician temporarily works in place of another physician. Answer: locum tenen...

An _____ is a face-to-face contact between the patient and the provider.

An _____ is a face-to-face contact between the patient and the provider. Answer: encounte...

___is a general term referring to electronic health records and related info systems to manage healthcare processes.

___is a general term referring to electronic health records and related info systems to manage healthcare processes. Answer: health info technology...

___ is the electronic movement of health related info among organizations according to nationally recognized standards.

___ is the electronic movement of health related info among organizations according to nationally recognized standards. Answer: health info exchange...

A ______ system is one in which a health care provider maintains individual patient health records electronically.

A ______ system is one in which a health care provider maintains individual patient health records electronically. Answer: electronic health...

A ____ is a partner or contractor performing a job or service on behalf of a covered entity.

A ____ is a partner or contractor performing a job or service on behalf of a covered entity. Answer: business associate B...

The ________ program is designed to recover improper medicare payments.

The ________ program is designed to recover improper medicare payments. Answer: Recover Audit contractor RA...

The ____ program was implemented by CMS to identify and investigate malicious fraudulent claims activity within medicare's seven geographic regions zones.

The ____ program was implemented by CMS to identify and investigate malicious fraudulent claims activity within medicare's seven geographic regions...

_______ is a program of medicaid for children younger than 21 that ensure that certain services are provided and paid for whether or not they are normally included under that states medicaid program.

_______ is a program of medicaid for children younger than 21 that ensure that certain services are provided and paid for whether or not they are normally...

The method for physician reimbursement currently in place based on relative value units is the _____________________.

The method for physician reimbursement currently in place based on relative value units is the _____________________. A. medicare physician fee schedule B.Diagnosis...

A freestanding ambulatory care facility generates which of the following at the conclusion of a patients visit?

A freestanding ambulatory care facility generates which of the following at the conclusion of a patients visit? A.UB-04 B.chargemaster C.HCFA-1450 D.Encounter...

An arrangement by which one physician temporarily works in place of another physician is ___________________.

An arrangement by which one physician temporarily works in place of another physician is ___________________. A.LMRP B.Locum tenens C.OIG D.program...

Which of the following groups does not publish standards for some type of ambulatory health care?

Which of the following groups does not publish standards for some type of ambulatory health care? A. the joint commission B. accreditation association...

The __________ specifies definitions and rules for selecting the principal diagnosis other diagnosis, principals procedure, and several other elements that are critical in DRG assignment and payment for hospital based care.

The __________ specifies definitions and rules for selecting the principal diagnosis other diagnosis, principals procedure, and several other elements...

Under an inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) that pays a hospital according to the diagnosis related group (DRG) assigned to each patients stay, what would the payment for a DRG with a relative weight of 1.75 if the hospitals PPS rate is $8,225?

Under an inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) that pays a hospital according to the diagnosis related group (DRG) assigned to each patients stay,...

Dr. Moore admits MAry Knight to Tanner hospital for observation. if he feels that mary meets the criteria for admission as an inpatient, Dr. Moore must generally make that decision within a ___________ time frame.

Dr. Moore admits MAry Knight to Tanner hospital for observation. if he feels that mary meets the criteria for admission as an inpatient, Dr. Moore must...

Amy Williams is the HIPAA compliance officer for wayne county hospital. in her role she will be expected to _________.

Amy Williams is the HIPAA compliance officer for wayne county hospital. in her role she will be expected to _________. A. Audit records against codes...

All of the following are potential roles for HIM professionals within a hospital setting EXCEPT

All of the following are potential roles for HIM professionals within a hospital setting EXCEPT A.Performance improvement analyst B.Coding supervisor C.Cancer...

Which of the following is a criterion for demonstrating "meaningful use" of electronic health records by hospital?

Which of the following is a criterion for demonstrating "meaningful use" of electronic health records by hospital? A. use of CPOE( computerized provider...

The legislative act which provides incentives to healthcare providers who utilize EHRs to enhance the quality of care provided their patients is the __________________.

The legislative act which provides incentives to healthcare providers who utilize EHRs to enhance the quality of care provided their patients is the...

As required by the medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003, CMS has replaced past claims processing contractors known as fiscal intermediaries and medicare carriers with ___________.

As required by the medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003, CMS has replaced past claims processing contractors known...

Which audit initiative resulted in many teaching hospitals having to repay millions of dollars to the medicare program because they lacked documentation to substantiate medicare payments to faculty physicians who supervised residents.

Which audit initiative resulted in many teaching hospitals having to repay millions of dollars to the medicare program because they lacked documentation...

The joint commission requires that the medical record contain a summary list for each patient that should include all of the following except____________.

The joint commission requires that the medical record contain a summary list for each patient that should include all of the following except____________. A....

Without documented info on the diagnoses or symptoms that prompted a physician to order a test, the hospital lacks the info needed to demonstrate that the test was_________.

Without documented info on the diagnoses or symptoms that prompted a physician to order a test, the hospital lacks the info needed to demonstrate that...

Partial hospitalization services are paid for under APCs when __________.

Partial hospitalization services are paid for under APCs when __________. A. recieved by unstable dialysis patients in a part of the hospital where...

Select the TRUE statement below with regard to medicare hospital outpatient reimbursement

Select the TRUE statement below with regard to medicare hospital outpatient reimbursement A.the hospital may be paid for only one RBRVS per day per...

What is a program for the performance of elective surgical procedures on patients who are classified as outpatients and typically are released from the surgery center on the day of surgery, thus avoiding an overnight stay in health care facility.

What is a program for the performance of elective surgical procedures on patients who are classified as outpatients and typically are released from...

The physician sends the patient to the hospital for a radiological examination. the patient returns to the physicians office for a follow up of test results. from the point of view of the hospital, what type of hospital patient is this?

The physician sends the patient to the hospital for a radiological examination. the patient returns to the physicians office for a follow up of test...

This federal entity charged with coordination of nationwide efforts to implement and use the most advanced health information technology and the electronic exchange of health info was mandated in the health info technology for economic and clinical health act(HITECH act) of 2009

This federal entity charged with coordination of nationwide efforts to implement and use the most advanced health information technology and the electronic...

Under this care model the primary care physician acts as a "gatekeeper" to coordinate the patient's care across providers by addressing preventive, acute, and chronic care needs and by providing patients with access to electronic tools.

Under this care model the primary care physician acts as a "gatekeeper" to coordinate the patient's care across providers by addressing preventive,...

Under this type of program, a providers reimbursement may be rewarded or penalized based upon their ability to meet pre-established targets for delivery of healthcare services

Under this type of program, a providers reimbursement may be rewarded or penalized based upon their ability to meet pre-established targets for delivery...

A ________ links data provided by various health care providers.

A ________ links data provided by various health care providers. A. HIE organization/RHIO B.patient focused record C. fee for service network D. prospective...

In a _________system the health care provider charges and is paid for each item of service provided.

In a _________system the health care provider charges and is paid for each item of service provided. A.Prospective payment B.Fee for Service C.Capitation D.Per...

Which of the following is a potentially positive type of mental health often examined by sociologists?

Which of the following is a potentially positive type of mental health often examined by sociologists? A Wellbeing B Depression C Stress D Anxiet...

Which of the following is true of mental illness?

Which of the following is true of mental illness? A. Mental illness must impair functioning or it is not true illness B. Mental illness is solely determined...

Which of the following is a social determinant of mental health?

Which of the following is a social determinant of mental health? A. Social roles B. Sociology C. Genetics D. Sociometrics Answer: Social ro...

Which of the following is NOT true of mental health?

Which of the following is NOT true of mental health? A. As sociologists, we are only concerned with the negative aspects of mental health B. Mental...

Which of the following is NOT a type of characteristic of a person which can be impacted by mental illness?

Which of the following is NOT a type of characteristic of a person which can be impacted by mental illness? A. Sociology B. Mood C. Cognition D. P...

Which of the following describes the paradigm employed by most scientific disciplines outside of sociology for understanding mental illness?

Which of the following describes the paradigm employed by most scientific disciplines outside of sociology for understanding mental illness? A. Medical...

Which of the following is NOT a major substantive area of interest to sociologists studying mental health?

Which of the following is NOT a major substantive area of interest to sociologists studying mental health? A. Consequences of medication non-compliance...

Despite sociology being important for the study of mental illness, why are genetics and biology still important as well?

Despite sociology being important for the study of mental illness, why are genetics and biology still important as well? A. Genetics and biology may...

Which of the following is NOT a reason why sociology is important to the study of mental illness?

Which of the following is NOT a reason why sociology is important to the study of mental illness? A) Research has shown that stress only plays a minimal...

Which of the following is NOT a social determinant of mental health?

Which of the following is NOT a social determinant of mental health? A Genetics B Race C Stress D Gender Answer: Genetic...

What are the seven components of criticisms?

What are the seven components of criticisms? 1. Source and funding of research 2. Who had contact with the participants 3. Sample and sampling procedure 4....

A researcher selects a sample of 100 people to investigate the relationship between gender (male/female) and registering to vote. The sample consists of 40 females, of whom 30 are registered voters, and 60 males, of whom 40 are registered voters. If these data were used for a chi-square test for independence, what is the expected frequency for registered females?

A researcher selects a sample of 100 people to investigate the relationship between gender (male/female) and registering to vote. The sample consists...

A chi-square test for independence has df = 2. What is the total number of categories (cells in the matrix) that were used to classify individuals in the sample?

A chi-square test for independence has df = 2. What is the total number of categories (cells in the matrix) that were used to classify individuals in...

What is stated by the null hypothesis for the chi-square test for independence?

What is stated by the null hypothesis for the chi-square test for independence? a. Both variables have the same frequency distribution. b. There is...

Which of the following accurately describes the chi-square distribution?

Which of the following accurately describes the chi-square distribution? a. Symmetrical with a mean of zero. b. Positively skewed with all values...

Which of the following accurately describes the observed frequencies for a chi-square test?

Which of the following accurately describes the observed frequencies for a chi-square test? a. They can contain both positive and negative values. b....

Which of the following accurately describes the expected frequencies for a chi-square test?

Which of the following accurately describes the expected frequencies for a chi-square test? a. They can contain fractions and negative numbers. b....

What is referred to by the term observed frequencies?

What is referred to by the term observed frequencies? a. The frequencies that are hypothesized for the population being examined. b. The frequencies...

If there is a negative correlation between X and Y then the regression equation, Y = bX + a will have ________.

If there is a negative correlation between X and Y then the regression equation, Y = bX + a will have ________. a. b < 0 b. b > 0 c. a <...

A set of X and Y scores has SSX = 10, SSY = 20, and SP = 8. What is the slope for the regression equation?

A set of X and Y scores has SSX = 10, SSY = 20, and SP = 8. What is the slope for the regression equation? a. 10/8 b. 8/20 c. 20/8 d. 8/10 Answer: d....

For the regression equation Y = 2X - 1, if the mean for X is MX = 8, what is the mean for Y?

For the regression equation Y = 2X - 1, if the mean for X is MX = 8, what is the mean for Y? a. 15 b. 7 c. 4.5 d. Impossible to determine. Answer: a....

In the general linear equation, Y = bX + a, what is the value of b called?

In the general linear equation, Y = bX + a, what is the value of b called? a. slope b. correlation between X and Y c. Y intercept d. X intercept Answer: a....

Under what circumstances, should the Spearman correlation be used?

Under what circumstances, should the Spearman correlation be used? a. The Pearson is too difficult to compute. b. The researcher's primary interest...

The Pearson and the Spearman correlations are both computed for the same set of data. If the Pearson correlation is r = +1.00, then what can you conclude about the Spearman correlation?

The Pearson and the Spearman correlations are both computed for the same set of data. If the Pearson correlation is r = +1.00, then what can you conclude...

Suppose the correlation between height and weight for adults is +0.80. What proportion (or percent) of the variability in weight can be explained by the relationship with height?

Suppose the correlation between height and weight for adults is +0.80. What proportion (or percent) of the variability in weight can be explained by...

What is the value of SP for the following set of data?

What is the value of SP for the following set of data? x y 1 5 3 3 8 1 a. 14 b. -14 c. -158 d. -11 Answer: b. -1...

A Pearson correlation of r = +0.85 indicates that a graph of the data would show:

A Pearson correlation of r = +0.85 indicates that a graph of the data would show: a. points clustered close to a line that slopes up to the right. b....

What is an excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies?

What is an excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies? Answer: An excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies (although...

What is the recommended dosage and duration for use of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate to control gingivitis and for caries management?

What is the recommended dosage and duration for use of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate to control gingivitis and for caries management? Answer: 2...

USPHS, what does it stand for, who works for, and what does it accomplish.

USPHS, what does it stand for, who works for, and what does it accomplish. • US Public Health Service (PHS)- is a part of the US Department of Heath...

When do you evaluate your public health program?

When do you evaluate your public health program? • Evaluating Intervention: key element of community oral health programs- take place at all stages-...

What does the National Health Service Corporation (NHSC) do, where, and who works for them?

What does the National Health Service Corporation (NHSC) do, where, and who works for them? • National Health Service Corps (NHSC)- part of health...

What will facilitate and be most effective for long term change in health behavior for elementary school children?

What will facilitate and be most effective for long term change in health behavior for elementary school children? Effective long term learning is...

Demand for dental care is strongly influences by.....and what are the barriers?

Demand for dental care is strongly influences by.....and what are the barriers? • Barriers are Multifaceted o availability o accessibility o accommodation o...

When do you evaluate your public health program?

When do you evaluate your public health program? • Evaluating Intervention key element of community oral health programs- take place at all stages-...

What were the milestones in dental public health in the early twentieth century?

What were the milestones in dental public health in the early twentieth century? High rate of infant mortality— • -maternal and child health programs...

What is the most important concept of Winslow's definition of public health?

What is the most important concept of Winslow's definition of public health? • winslow's definition of public health- the science and art of preventing...

What are the steps when you are asked to go into a new community and develop a dental health program?

What are the steps when you are asked to go into a new community and develop a dental health program? • Assess - community survey • Diagnosis • Planning-...

Dental health surveys are used for... when are they used, do they over estimate or underestimate dental health needs of a community.

Dental health surveys are used for... when are they used, do they over estimate or underestimate dental health needs of a community. Answer: Dental...

When are Ramfjord teeth used, how used, which teeth are included in the Ramfjord teeth (exactly)

When are Ramfjord teeth used, how used, which teeth are included in the Ramfjord teeth (exactly) Maxillary right first molar, left central incisor,...

What would the BEST resources be for dental health information materials to use with develop public programs?

What would the BEST resources be for dental health information materials to use with develop public programs? • Provider observations • Computer searches •...

Guidelines for development of dental health educational materials for the public.

Guidelines for development of dental health educational materials for the public. • People at all literacy levels prefer written materials that are...

Which procedure would you utilize when treating an HIV/AIDS patient?

Which procedure would you utilize when treating an HIV/AIDS patient? Answer: Disposable barrie...

In HIV/AIDS, which cell in the immune system is changed, replicated and then destroyed?

In HIV/AIDS, which cell in the immune system is changed, replicated and then destroyed? Answer: T-4 (T-helper lymphocytes...

Which results of blood work do you need to know?

Which results of blood work do you need to know? Answer: a. CD4+ T lymphocytes b. Viral Loa...

What is the recommended length of time for taking PEP meds for maximum effectiveness?

What is the recommended length of time for taking PEP meds for maximum effectiveness? Answer: 4 week...

For the best results, how soon should PEP be administered after an exposure if deemed necessary?

For the best results, how soon should PEP be administered after an exposure if deemed necessary? Answer: within 2 hour...

List the four steps of exposure protocol (for percutaneous or mucosal splash exposure):

List the four steps of exposure protocol (for percutaneous or mucosal splash exposure): a. Local wash with soap and water b. Flush eyes, mucous membrane...

List the body fluids that do not have HIV or have insufficient amounts to cause an infection:

List the body fluids that do not have HIV or have insufficient amounts to cause an infection: a. Saliva (non-bloody) b. Tears c. Sweat d. Urine and...

List the potentially infectious body fluids:

List the potentially infectious body fluids: a. Blood b. Visibly bloody fluids c. Semen, vaginal secretions d. Cerebrospinal fluid e. Gingival crevicular...

How many dental personnel have contracted HIV from occupational exposure?

How many dental personnel have contracted HIV from occupational exposure? Answer: ...

The risk of occupational exposure is generally through what two modes for health care workers?

The risk of occupational exposure is generally through what two modes for health care workers? Answer: a. Percutaneous b. Mucosal splas...

Why is adherence (to HAART) so difficult for patients?

Why is adherence (to HAART) so difficult for patients? Answer: The medications can cause serious, debilitating side effect...

HAART, now referred to as ART, has an approximate 38% probability (according to a survey in 2008) of the patient delaying or refusing use. What percentage of adherence is critical to obtain good results?

HAART, now referred to as ART, has an approximate 38% probability (according to a survey in 2008) of the patient delaying or refusing use. What percentage...

What role does the dentist/dental hygienist play at this stage of infection (progression of chronic infection)?

What role does the dentist/dental hygienist play at this stage of infection (progression of chronic infection)? Answer: They may be the first...

Describe the progression of chronic HIV infection.

Describe the progression of chronic HIV infection. Answer: Progression = CD4↓(important diagnostically) and V.L.(viral load)↑ Progressive immune...

What are the top four signs and symptoms of a primary HIV infection?

What are the top four signs and symptoms of a primary HIV infection? Answer: a. Mild fever b. Maculopapular rash c. Lymphadenopathy d. Oral mani...

While the CD4 count drops substantially, what happens to the number of virions (viral load) in the blood?

While the CD4 count drops substantially, what happens to the number of virions (viral load) in the blood? Answer: It increase...

Briefly explain in your own words the difference between HIV and AIDS.

Briefly explain in your own words the difference between HIV and AIDS. Answer: a. HIV is the viral infection that is acquired. IF the HIV infection...

What are the most common intraoral symptoms associated with HIV infection (3 types)? List examples of the three types: (including most common oral infection, examples of viral infections, and the 3 most common periodontal infections)

What are the most common intraoral symptoms associated with HIV infection (3 types)? List examples of the three types: (including most common oral infection,...

As the count of indicator cells decreases, the symptoms of disease and the incidence of oral infections or oral lesions related to the HIV infection______________.

As the count of indicator cells decreases, the symptoms of disease and the incidence of oral infections or oral lesions related to the HIV infectio...

At what level does the CD4+ T cell count indicate late-stage disease or AIDS infection?

At what level does the CD4+ T cell count indicate late-stage disease or AIDS infection? Answer: <200 mm...

In HIV disease, the number of CD4+ T lymphocytes _________as the infection and symptoms become more severe.

In HIV disease, the number of CD4+ T lymphocytes _________as the infection and symptoms become more severe. Answer: decrease...

A count of what serologic marker is the most used marker to evaluate and monitor the progression of HIV infection?

A count of what serologic marker is the most used marker to evaluate and monitor the progression of HIV infection? Answer: CD4 T-lymphocyte...

What 4 modes of transmission can the HIV virus be transmitted from one individual to another (one is less prevalent in the U.S. now but still present in developing countries)?

What 4 modes of transmission can the HIV virus be transmitted from one individual to another (one is less prevalent in the U.S. now but still present...

Three healthful ways to manage anger:

Three healthful ways to manage anger: 1. Seek sources of support to get help and guidance - this will help you get through the issue with the right...

Explain the importance of a healthy self-esteem and emotional health. The describe two ways to improve self-esteem.

Explain the importance of a healthy self-esteem and emotional health. The describe two ways to improve self-esteem. Answer: In order to ever...

Three ways to show support to someone who is grieving

Three ways to show support to someone who is grieving Answer: Be an empathetic listener, Help them recall happy memories, and Support them...

Two methods of treating mental illnesses.

Two methods of treating mental illnesses. Answer: Behavior Therapy: a person that has a disorder gets rewarded for good behaviors. This encourages...

How are major and minor depression similar and different?

How are major and minor depression similar and different? Answer: They both increase the risk of suicide because they make people feel sad, helpless,...

How are the five major food groups related to the major types of nutrients? How does this relationship help you make healthful food choices?

How are the five major food groups related to the major types of nutrients? How does this relationship help you make healthful food choices? Answer: They...

Compare and contrast the three types of fats.

Compare and contrast the three types of fats. Answer: Saturated fats and trans fats are bad for your body and health. It can raise your cholesterol...

Why is a high fat diet considered to be low in nutrient density?

Why is a high fat diet considered to be low in nutrient density? Answer: Fat has more calories per gram (9), compared to proteins and carbohydrates...

What are two ways for identifying fad diets?

What are two ways for identifying fad diets? Answer: if they say: - "lose weight fast" or use words like miraculous or effortless - involves...

What are two ways in which a healthful eating plan for an athlete differs from a healthful eating plan for a less-active teen? What are two ways in which they are similar?

What are two ways in which a healthful eating plan for an athlete differs from a healthful eating plan for a less-active teen? What are two ways in...

Compare and contrast the three forms of eating disorders that were discussed in the chapter.

Compare and contrast the three forms of eating disorders that were discussed in the chapter. Answer: Anorexia vs. Bulimia: People with these...

If a teen has a poor body image, how will that affect their nutrition?

If a teen has a poor body image, how will that affect their nutrition? Answer: It may make them feel as though they need to go on a diet (usually)....

Explain what complications or side effects can occur if a teen begins to use performance enhancing drugs.

Explain what complications or side effects can occur if a teen begins to use performance enhancing drugs. Answer: One drug, creatine, causes...

Define energy balance.

Define energy balance. Answer: The amount of calories you eat to the amount of calories you burn. If you eat more than you burn, you'll gain...

What is health quackery? What can a consumer do to avoid consumer fraud?

What is health quackery? What can a consumer do to avoid consumer fraud? Answer: Health quackery is the practice of disseminating or supplying...

Describe the similarities between allopathic and osteopathic physicians. What is an alternative health care practitioner? Give examples of the types of alternative practitioners.

Describe the similarities between allopathic and osteopathic physicians. What is an alternative health care practitioner? Give examples of the types...

What are the three criteria that must be met by an OTC drug?

What are the three criteria that must be met by an OTC drug? Answer: Over the counter drugs are placed into three categories (I, II, and III)....

What are the theories underlying acupuncture and ayurveda?

What are the theories underlying acupuncture and ayurveda? Answer: Acupuncture is a system based on balancing the active and passive forces within...

How do modeling and manipulation explain the development of emotional dependence on tobacco?

How do modeling and manipulation explain the development of emotional dependence on tobacco? Answer: Modeling is the process of adopting the...

What effect does nicotine have on the body outside of the central nervous system? How does the influence nicotine resemble that associated with the stress response?

What effect does nicotine have on the body outside of the central nervous system? How does the influence nicotine resemble that associated with the...

In comparison to cigarettes, what are the health risks associated with pipe and cigar smoking?

In comparison to cigarettes, what are the health risks associated with pipe and cigar smoking? Answer: Cigarette smokers typically are more vulnerable...

What is the principle effect on carbon monoxide on cardiac function?

What is the principle effect on carbon monoxide on cardiac function? Answer: Carbon monoxide bonds with hemoglobin which forms carboxyhemoglobin....

Differentiate among drug misuse, drug abuse, and drug dependence.

Differentiate among drug misuse, drug abuse, and drug dependence. Answer: Drug misuse describes the use of drugs for a different reason than...

What is BAC? Describe the general sequence of physiological events that takes place when a person drinks alcohol at a rate faster then the liver can oxidize it.

What is BAC? Describe the general sequence of physiological events that takes place when a person drinks alcohol at a rate faster then the liver can...

Define the word tolerance. What does cross-tolerance mean? Give an example of cross-tolerance.

Define the word tolerance. What does cross-tolerance mean? Give an example of cross-tolerance. Answer: Tolerance is an acquired reaction to a...

Identify and explain the various factors that influence the absorption of alcohol. Why is it important to be aware of these factors?

Identify and explain the various factors that influence the absorption of alcohol. Why is it important to be aware of these factors? Answer: Several...

Identify and explain the three steps in the process of addiction.

Identify and explain the three steps in the process of addiction. Answer: The process of addiction begins with exposure. Once exposed, individuals...

What information can be obtained from our current food labels?

What information can be obtained from our current food labels? Answer: Based on current food labels, individuals can find out the origin of meats,...

What is the principal role of protein in the body? How can complete protein be obtained by people who eat few or no animal products?

What is the principal role of protein in the body? How can complete protein be obtained by people who eat few or no animal products? Answer: The...