Archive for March 2019

_ are guidance documents published by medicare administrative contractors (MACs) that include info on codes that indicate medical necessity of services. these policies apply to services covered under Medicare in the region served by the contractor.

_ are guidance documents published by medicare administrative contractors (MACs) that include info on codes that indicate medical necessity of services. these policies apply to services covered under Medicare in the region served by the contractor.



Answer: National coverage determinations

_______ is a program of medicaid for children younger than 21 that ensure that certain services are provided and paid for whether or not they are normally included under that states medicaid program.

_______ is a program of medicaid for children younger than 21 that ensure that certain services are provided and paid for whether or not they are normally included under that states medicaid program.


A.early and periodic screening,diagnostic,and treatment (EPSDT) services
B. Children's health assurance program(CHAP)
C.Federally Qualified Health Center(FQHC) program
D.national coverage determination(NCP) program


Answer: A.early and periodic screening,diagnostic,and treatment (EPSDT) services

The __________ specifies definitions and rules for selecting the principal diagnosis other diagnosis, principals procedure, and several other elements that are critical in DRG assignment and payment for hospital based care.

The __________ specifies definitions and rules for selecting the principal diagnosis other diagnosis, principals procedure, and several other elements that are critical in DRG assignment and payment for hospital based care.




A.UHDDS
B.UACDS
C.DEEDS
D.NCVHS


Answer: A.UHDDS

Under an inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) that pays a hospital according to the diagnosis related group (DRG) assigned to each patients stay, what would the payment for a DRG with a relative weight of 1.75 if the hospitals PPS rate is $8,225?

Under an inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS) that pays a hospital according to the diagnosis related group (DRG) assigned to each patients stay, what would the payment for a DRG with a relative weight of 1.75 if the hospitals PPS rate is $8,225?


A.$4,700.00
B.$14,393.78
C.$21,267.60
D.Not enough info


Answer: B.$14,393.78

Dr. Moore admits MAry Knight to Tanner hospital for observation. if he feels that mary meets the criteria for admission as an inpatient, Dr. Moore must generally make that decision within a ___________ time frame.

Dr. Moore admits MAry Knight to Tanner hospital for observation. if he feels that mary meets the criteria for admission as an inpatient, Dr. Moore must generally make that decision within a ___________ time frame.


A.12-hour
B.24-Hour
C.48-hour
D.72-hour


Answer: B.24-Hour

Amy Williams is the HIPAA compliance officer for wayne county hospital. in her role she will be expected to _________.

Amy Williams is the HIPAA compliance officer for wayne county hospital. in her role she will be expected to _________.


A. Audit records against codes submitted
B. Purchase supplies for the operating room suite
C. Ensure insurance info is obtained upon patient admission
D. Track patient disposition after discharge


Answer: A. Audit records against codes submitted

Which of the following is a criterion for demonstrating "meaningful use" of electronic health records by hospital?

Which of the following is a criterion for demonstrating "meaningful use" of electronic health records by hospital?


A. use of CPOE( computerized provider order entry) for orders directly entered by authorizing provider
B.Record smoking status for patients 13 years or older
C.Check insurance eligibility electronically from public and private payers
D. none of the above is a criterion
E. All of the above are criteria


Answer: E. All of the above are criteria

The legislative act which provides incentives to healthcare providers who utilize EHRs to enhance the quality of care provided their patients is the __________________.

The legislative act which provides incentives to healthcare providers who utilize EHRs to enhance the quality of care provided their patients is the __________________.


A.emergeny medical treatments and active labor act(EMTALA)
B. American recovery and reinvestment act(ARRA)
C.Health insurance portability and accountability act(HIPAA)
D.Electronic health record adoption act(EHRAA)


Answer: B. American recovery and reinvestment act(ARRA)

As required by the medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003, CMS has replaced past claims processing contractors known as fiscal intermediaries and medicare carriers with ___________.

As required by the medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003, CMS has replaced past claims processing contractors known as fiscal intermediaries and medicare carriers with ___________.


AMedicare payment processors(MPPs)
B.Medicare evaluation boards(MEBs)
C.Medicare administrative contractors(MACs)
D.Medicare revenue exchanges(MREs)


Answer: C.Medicare administrative contractors(MACs)

Which audit initiative resulted in many teaching hospitals having to repay millions of dollars to the medicare program because they lacked documentation to substantiate medicare payments to faculty physicians who supervised residents.

Which audit initiative resulted in many teaching hospitals having to repay millions of dollars to the medicare program because they lacked documentation to substantiate medicare payments to faculty physicians who supervised residents.


A.PATH
B.EMTALA
C.MAC
D.HOPPS


Answer: A.PATH

The joint commission requires that the medical record contain a summary list for each patient that should include all of the following except____________.

The joint commission requires that the medical record contain a summary list for each patient that should include all of the following except____________.


A. significant medical diagnoses and conditions
B. significant operative and invasive procedures
C.Adverse and allergic drug reactions
D. past insurance and billing accounts with significant balances


Answer: D. past insurance and billing accounts with significant balances

Without documented info on the diagnoses or symptoms that prompted a physician to order a test, the hospital lacks the info needed to demonstrate that the test was_________.

Without documented info on the diagnoses or symptoms that prompted a physician to order a test, the hospital lacks the info needed to demonstrate that the test was_________.


A.performed in a timely manner
B. Professionally administered
C. medically necessary
D.critically assessed


Answer: C. medically necessary

Partial hospitalization services are paid for under APCs when __________.

Partial hospitalization services are paid for under APCs when __________.


A. recieved by unstable dialysis patients in a part of the hospital where patients generally do not stay overnight
B. psychiatric or behavioral health patients receive certain services and spend part of the day or the night in the hospital
C. an observation patient has been in the hospital for over 48 hours and the patients condition still does not permit discharge to home
D. An inpatient length of stay is too short for a regular DRG payment


Answer: B. psychiatric or behavioral health patients receive certain services and spend part of the day or the night in the hospital

Select the TRUE statement below with regard to medicare hospital outpatient reimbursement

Select the TRUE statement below with regard to medicare hospital outpatient reimbursement


A.the hospital may be paid for only one RBRVS per day per patient
B.The hospital may be paid for only one APC per day per patient
C. The hospital may be paid for only one APC per patient per 72 hours
D. the hospital may be paid for more than one APC per patient visit


Answer: D. the hospital may be paid for more than one APC per patient visit

What is a program for the performance of elective surgical procedures on patients who are classified as outpatients and typically are released from the surgery center on the day of surgery, thus avoiding an overnight stay in health care facility.

What is a program for the performance of elective surgical procedures on patients who are classified as outpatients and typically are released from the surgery center on the day of surgery, thus avoiding an overnight stay in health care facility.


A.Ambulatory surgery
B. Partial hospitalization
C. Adult day care
D. surgery clinic


Answer: A.Ambulatory surgery

The physician sends the patient to the hospital for a radiological examination. the patient returns to the physicians office for a follow up of test results. from the point of view of the hospital, what type of hospital patient is this?

The physician sends the patient to the hospital for a radiological examination. the patient returns to the physicians office for a follow up of test results. from the point of view of the hospital, what type of hospital patient is this?


A. Inpatient
B.Emergency outpatient
C.Clinic outpatient
D.Referred outpatient


Answer: D.Referred outpatient

This federal entity charged with coordination of nationwide efforts to implement and use the most advanced health information technology and the electronic exchange of health info was mandated in the health info technology for economic and clinical health act(HITECH act) of 2009

This federal entity charged with coordination of nationwide efforts to implement and use the most advanced health information technology and the electronic exchange of health info was mandated in the health info technology for economic and clinical health act(HITECH act) of 2009




A.Health info exchange organization
B.Patient centered medical home model
C. Pay for performance(P4P)
D.Patient safety organization(PSO)


Answer: A.Health info exchange organization

Under this care model the primary care physician acts as a "gatekeeper" to coordinate the patient's care across providers by addressing preventive, acute, and chronic care needs and by providing patients with access to electronic tools.

Under this care model the primary care physician acts as a "gatekeeper" to coordinate the patient's care across providers by addressing preventive, acute, and chronic care needs and by providing patients with access to electronic tools.


A.Health info exchange organization
B.Patient centered medical home model
C. pay for performance(P4P)
D.Patient safety organization(PSO)


Answer: B.Patient centered medical home model

Under this type of program, a providers reimbursement may be rewarded or penalized based upon their ability to meet pre-established targets for delivery of healthcare services

Under this type of program, a providers reimbursement may be rewarded or penalized based upon their ability to meet pre-established targets for delivery of healthcare services


A.pay-for-performance(P4P)
B. Zone program integrity contractors(ZPICs)
C. quality improvement organization(QIO)
D.Clinical documentation improvement(CDI)


Answer: A.pay-for-performance(P4P)

Which of the following is true of mental illness?

Which of the following is true of mental illness?


A. Mental illness must impair functioning or it is not true illness
B. Mental illness is solely determined by genetics
C. Mental illness is solely determined by social factors
D. The only explanation for mental illness is the medical model


Answer: Mental illness must impair functioning or it is not true illness

Which of the following is NOT true of mental health?

Which of the following is NOT true of mental health?


A. As sociologists, we are only concerned with the negative aspects of mental health
B. Mental illness comprises negative conditions of mental health
C. Mental health refers to the condition of one's psychological and emotional wellbeing
D. Social conditions are important for understanding mental health outcomes


Answer: As sociologists, we are only concerned with the negative aspects of mental health

Which of the following is NOT a major substantive area of interest to sociologists studying mental health?

Which of the following is NOT a major substantive area of interest to sociologists studying mental health?


A. Consequences of medication non-compliance on disorder course
B. The social construction of mental illness
C. Social antecedents of mental health
D. Social consequences of mental illness


Answer: Consequences of medication non-compliance on disorder course

Despite sociology being important for the study of mental illness, why are genetics and biology still important as well?

Despite sociology being important for the study of mental illness, why are genetics and biology still important as well?


A. Genetics and biology may interact with social determinants to produce mental health outcomes
B. Genetics are causal in determining mental illness
C. Mental illness is a universal biological phenomenon
D. The conceptualization of mental health does not vary cross-culturally



Answer: Genetics and biology may interact with social determinants to produce mental health outcomes

Which of the following is NOT a reason why sociology is important to the study of mental illness?

Which of the following is NOT a reason why sociology is important to the study of mental illness?


A) Research has shown that stress only plays a minimal role in predicting mental health
B) The medical model of mental health can function to marginalize people exhibiting deviant behavior
C) There exist disparities in mental health status by race, gender, and class
D) What is considered mental illness varies across cultures


Answer: Research has shown that stress only plays a minimal role in predicting mental health

What are the seven components of criticisms?

What are the seven components of criticisms?



1. Source and funding of research
2. Who had contact with the participants
3. Sample and sampling procedure
4. Exact measures / wording of questions
5. Study setting
6. Pre-existing differences among participants
7. Extent or size of effects/differences

A researcher selects a sample of 100 people to investigate the relationship between gender (male/female) and registering to vote. The sample consists of 40 females, of whom 30 are registered voters, and 60 males, of whom 40 are registered voters. If these data were used for a chi-square test for independence, what is the expected frequency for registered females?

A researcher selects a sample of 100 people to investigate the relationship between gender (male/female) and registering to vote. The sample consists of 40 females, of whom 30 are registered voters, and 60 males, of whom 40 are registered voters. If these data were used for a chi-square test for independence, what is the expected frequency for registered females?



a. 42
b. 12
c. 40
d. 28


Answer: d. 28

What is stated by the null hypothesis for the chi-square test for independence?

What is stated by the null hypothesis for the chi-square test for independence?



a. Both variables have the same frequency distribution.
b. There is a relationship between the two variables.
c. There is no relationship between the two variables.
d. The two variables have different frequency distributions.


Answer: c. There is no relationship between the two variables.

Which of the following accurately describes the chi-square distribution?

Which of the following accurately describes the chi-square distribution?



a. Symmetrical with a mean of zero.
b. Positively skewed with all values greater than or equal to zero.
c. Symmetrical with a mean equal to n - 1.
d. Negatively skewed with all values greater than or equal to zero.


Answer: b. Positively skewed with all values greater than or equal to zero.

Which of the following accurately describes the observed frequencies for a chi-square test?

Which of the following accurately describes the observed frequencies for a chi-square test?



a. They can contain both positive and negative values.
b. They can contain fractions and negative numbers.
c. They are always whole numbers.
d. They can contain fractions or decimal values.


Answer: c. They are always whole numbers.

Which of the following accurately describes the expected frequencies for a chi-square test?

Which of the following accurately describes the expected frequencies for a chi-square test?



a. They can contain fractions and negative numbers.
b. They can contain fractions or decimal values.
c. They can contain both positive and negative values.
d. They are always whole numbers.


Answer: b. They can contain fractions or decimal values.

What is referred to by the term observed frequencies?

What is referred to by the term observed frequencies?



a. The frequencies that are hypothesized for the population being examined.
b. The frequencies computed from the null hypothesis.
c. The frequencies found in the population being examined.
d. The frequencies found in the sample data.


Answer: d. The frequencies found in the sample data.

Under what circumstances, should the Spearman correlation be used?

Under what circumstances, should the Spearman correlation be used?



a. The Pearson is too difficult to compute.
b. The researcher's primary interest is the linearity of the relationship.
c. The original data are measured on an ordinal scale of measurement.
d. All of the other options are appropriate circumstances for the Spearman correlation.


Answer: c. The original data are measured on an ordinal scale of measurement.

The Pearson and the Spearman correlations are both computed for the same set of data. If the Pearson correlation is r = +1.00, then what can you conclude about the Spearman correlation?

The Pearson and the Spearman correlations are both computed for the same set of data. If the Pearson correlation is r = +1.00, then what can you conclude about the Spearman correlation?



a. It will have a value of 1.00
b. It will be positive and have a value of 1.00
c. There is no predictable relationship between the Pearson and the Spearman correlations.
d. It will be positive.


Answer: b. It will be positive and have a value of 1.00

A Pearson correlation of r = +0.85 indicates that a graph of the data would show:

A Pearson correlation of r = +0.85 indicates that a graph of the data would show:



a. points clustered close to a line that slopes up to the right.
b. points widely scattered around a line that slopes up to the right.
c. points widely scattered around a line that slopes down to the right.
d. points clustered close to a line that slopes down to the right.


Answer: a. points clustered close to a line that slopes up to the right.

What is an excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies?

What is an excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies?



Answer: An excellent dental indices used in epidemiology studies (although using an indirect method of scoring) to measure loss of periodontal attachment is LAP (utilizes the CEJ as a fixed point-measures traditional pocket depth, then measures from gingival crest to the CEJ...then takes step one minus step two as the final score.

USPHS, what does it stand for, who works for, and what does it accomplish.

USPHS, what does it stand for, who works for, and what does it accomplish.



• US Public Health Service (PHS)- is a part of the US Department of Heath and Human Services with eight agencies dedicated to improving and advancing the health of this country's people. US PHS Commissioned Corps- provides highly trained and mobile health professionals who conduct programs to promote the health of the nation, understand and prevent disease and injury, ensure safe and effective drugs and medical devices, deliver health services to federal beneficiaries, and provide health expertise in time of war or other national or international emergency.

• The first Surgeon General was appointed in 1871 to head the Marine Hospital Service, itself established in 1798 to minister to sick and injured merchant seamen, It was reorganized as the US PHS in 1912.

• To accomplish the mission of the PHS, its agencies/programs are designed to:
o Help provide health care and related services to medically underserved populations: Americans, American Indians, Alaska Natives, and other poopulation groups with special needs.
o Prevent and control disease, identify health hazards in the environment and help correct them, and promote healthy lifestyles for the nation's citizens.
o Improve the mental health of all populations in the U.S.
o Ensure that drugs andmedical devices are safe and effective, food is safe and wholesome, cosmetics are harmless, and electronic products do not expose users to dangerous amounts of radiation
o Conduct and support biomedical, behavioral, and health services research and communicate research results to health professionals and the public.
o Work with other nations and international agencies on global health problems and their solutions.

• Candidate must have earned a qualifying bachelor's degree.

• Department of health and human services
o Indian Health Service
o Center for Disease Control Prevention
o Food and Drug Administration
o Health Resources and Services Administration
o National Institutes of Health

• Department of Justice
o Bureau of Prisons

• Department of Defense
o Military Bases

When do you evaluate your public health program?

When do you evaluate your public health program?

• Evaluating Intervention: key element of community oral health programs- take place at all stages- both formative and summative evaluation.
• Program evaluation- applied research
• Baseline information (knowledge, attituds, or behaviors before)
• Points to evaluate:
o Quality of program and personnel (formative)
o Progress and effectiveness of activities (formative)
o Perceptions, attitudes, + participation of recipients of program (formative)
o Systematic + regular eval of goals + objectives
• Quantitative (how many people increased their knowledge of the causes of ECC)
• Qualitative (why did people participate in the activity and how do they intend to change their parenting behaviors)
• Health status of participants of program after it is completed.
• evaluating it at all stages allows planners to revise programs as needed to improve its outcomes.

What does the National Health Service Corporation (NHSC) do, where, and who works for them?

What does the National Health Service Corporation (NHSC) do, where, and who works for them?



• National Health Service Corps (NHSC)- part of health resources and services administration (HRSA), a PHS agency. It is committed to improving the health of the nation's underserved by uniting communities in need with caring health professionals and supporting communities' efforts to build better systems of care and works closely with state programs for underserved areas. The NHSC recruits primary care clinicians to provide comprehensive team based health care that bridges geographic, financial, cultural, and language barriers.
• Dental hygienist may work as clinicians with the NHSC, and those with qualifying educational loans may be eligible to compete for repayment of those loans if they choose to serve in a community of greatest need. In addition to loan repayment, these clinicians receive a competitive salary, some tax relief benefits, and a chance to have a significant impact on a community.

What will facilitate and be most effective for long term change in health behavior for elementary school children?

What will facilitate and be most effective for long term change in health behavior for elementary school children?



Effective long term learning is facilitated by reinforcement!!! Continued reinforcement after initial exposure. Something child will be encouraged or rewarded for when doing the positive health behavior long after you (the health care provider) have thoroughly taught the 'positive health habit'..,
Remember, in your lesson plans the 'Reinforcement' Category...& I always said you MUST give them something...leave something for them to do...that will continue to reinforce your 'objectives' long after u are gone!!!
Wellness scale is a continuum depicting a linear scale from complete health to death.

Demand for dental care is strongly influences by.....and what are the barriers?

Demand for dental care is strongly influences by.....and what are the barriers?



• Barriers are Multifaceted
o availability
o accessibility
o accommodation
o affordability
o acceptability
• Use of clinical oral health services determined by
o epidemiologic
o social
o demographic
o personal
o psychological

When do you evaluate your public health program?

When do you evaluate your public health program?



• Evaluating Intervention key element of community oral health programs- take place at all stages- both formative and summative evaluation.
• Program evaluation- applied research
• Baseline information (knowledge, attituds, or behaviors before)
• Points to evaluate
o Quality of program and personnel (formative)
o Progress and effectiveness of activities (formative)
o Perceptions, attitudes, + participation of recipients of program (formative)
o Systematic + regular eval of goals + objectives
• Quantitative (how many people increased their knowledge of the causes of ECC)
• Qualitative (why did people participate in the activity and how do they intend to change their parenting behaviors)
• Health status of participants of program after it is completed.
• evaluating it at all stages allows planners to revise programs as needed to improve its outcomes.

What were the milestones in dental public health in the early twentieth century?

What were the milestones in dental public health in the early twentieth century?



High rate of infant mortality—
• -maternal and child health programs initiated with an emphasis on nutrition, medical care, and, eventually, health inspection in schools.
• -Disgraceful conditions in food processing industry—initiation of widespread governmental regulation.
• -High rates occupational diseases and industrial injuries-new programs for industrial hygiene and occupational health.
• -Mental health was identified as a public health issue, and specific nutritional deficiencies were recognized as risk factors for a spectrum of diseases, including studies of pellagra, a vitamin-deficiency disease
• Dr. George Cooper added oral hygiene to the public health agenda (1918)

What is the most important concept of Winslow's definition of public health?

What is the most important concept of Winslow's definition of public health?



• winslow's definition of public health- the science and art of preventing and controlling dental disease and promoting dental health through organized community efforts. It is that form of dental practice which serves the community as the patient rather that the individual. It is concerned with the dental education of the public, and applied dental research, and with the administration of group dental care programs as well as prevention and control of dental diseases on a community basis.
• The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life and promoting health and efficiency through organized community effort
• Effort to promote physical and mental health and prevent disease, injury and disability at the population level. It involves a wide range of products, activities, and services aimed at the entire population although it is sometimes delivered to the individual.

What are the steps when you are asked to go into a new community and develop a dental health program?

What are the steps when you are asked to go into a new community and develop a dental health program?



• Assess - community survey
• Diagnosis
• Planning- plan the program
• Implementation- conduct the program
• Evaluation- review program, evaluate
o Encompassing the assessment, diagnosis, implementation, and evaluation stages of a dental public health program

Dental health surveys are used for... when are they used, do they over estimate or underestimate dental health needs of a community.

Dental health surveys are used for... when are they used, do they over estimate or underestimate dental health needs of a community.



Answer: Dental surveys of the public often underestimate the needs of the patients. Surveys often look at short term needs...dentists looking more at long-term outcomes and a myriad of complicating factors

When are Ramfjord teeth used, how used, which teeth are included in the Ramfjord teeth (exactly)

When are Ramfjord teeth used, how used, which teeth are included in the Ramfjord teeth (exactly)



Maxillary right first molar, left central incisor, & left first premolar, mandibular left first molar, right central incisor, and right first premolar.
• # 3, 9, 12, 19, 25, 28
• The Ramjford teeth are six teeth that are representative of all the teeth, these teeth can be generalized to the entire dentition.

What would the BEST resources be for dental health information materials to use with develop public programs?

What would the BEST resources be for dental health information materials to use with develop public programs?



• Provider observations
• Computer searches
• Stakeholders' opinions
• Institutional strengths and weaknesses
• Institutional policies and practices
• Local resources
• National program objectives
• History of the problem and previous interventions
• Chart reviews
• Screenings
• Knowledge of infrastructure
-CDC
-FDA

Guidelines for development of dental health educational materials for the public.

Guidelines for development of dental health educational materials for the public.




• People at all literacy levels prefer written materials that are simple and attractive
• Most people, even those who read well, use visual clues to reinforce learning.
• Graphics and videos can help patients absorb new information, especially when used with written materials
o Diagrams or pictures, audio taped instructions, video tapes, interactive computer programs
• Emphasize the desired behavior rather than the medical facts.
• Have just one or two educational objectives (few)
• Use clear headings, bullets instead of paragraphs, and ample white space (a Q&A format works especially well).
• Use short sentences, active voice, and conversational language
• Use pictures and examples to illustrate important points
• Involve patients in developing the materials
• Internet is not yet a viable option—searching the internet requires 'high-level' literacy skills
o However, the Internet can be an excellent resource for those who are providing andor developing information for patients.

List the potentially infectious body fluids:

List the potentially infectious body fluids:




a. Blood
b. Visibly bloody fluids
c. Semen, vaginal secretions
d. Cerebrospinal fluid
e. Gingival crevicular fluid
f. Breast milk

Describe the progression of chronic HIV infection.

Describe the progression of chronic HIV infection.



Answer:

Progression = CD4↓(important diagnostically) and V.L.(viral load)↑
Progressive immune suppression
Clinical symptoms may present at CD4 <400 (important diagnostically)
Oral Candidiasis may be first symptom
Other symptoms include fatigue, night sweats, PGL, weight loss, diarrhea

Briefly explain in your own words the difference between HIV and AIDS.

Briefly explain in your own words the difference between HIV and AIDS.



Answer: a. HIV is the viral infection that is acquired. IF the HIV infection progresses to a late stage HIV disease then it will manifest in AIDS which is in the form of various diseases.

What are the most common intraoral symptoms associated with HIV infection (3 types)? List examples of the three types: (including most common oral infection, examples of viral infections, and the 3 most common periodontal infections)

What are the most common intraoral symptoms associated with HIV infection (3 types)? List examples of the three types: (including most common oral infection, examples of viral infections, and the 3 most common periodontal infections)




c. Fungal infections
i. Oral Candidiasis- most frequently occurring oral infection
d. Viral infections
i. Ex: herpes simplex, oral hairy leukoplakia, oral lesions of VZV, human papilloma virus, and cytomegalovirus ulcurs
e. Bacterial infections: Gingival and periodontal infections
i. Linear gingival erythema
ii. Necrotizing Ulcerative gingivitis
iii. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

What 4 modes of transmission can the HIV virus be transmitted from one individual to another (one is less prevalent in the U.S. now but still present in developing countries)?

What 4 modes of transmission can the HIV virus be transmitted from one individual to another (one is less prevalent in the U.S. now but still present in developing countries)?



Answer:

a. Sexual contact (accounts for most of the case of transmission in adults)
b. Exposure to blood and blood products
c. Parinatel
d. Blood transfusion (not prevalent in US)

Three healthful ways to manage anger:

Three healthful ways to manage anger:



1. Seek sources of support to get help and guidance - this will help you get through the issue with the right approach.

2. Ask yourself questions, such as, "Will this matter later on in my life?" - this will help you realize how minor many issues really are.

3. Take part in a relaxing anger relieving activity, such as boxing. - this will help get rid of anger in an appropriate, controlled manner.

Explain the importance of a healthy self-esteem and emotional health. The describe two ways to improve self-esteem.

Explain the importance of a healthy self-esteem and emotional health. The describe two ways to improve self-esteem.



Answer: In order to ever be happy with anything in life, you need to have a healthy self-esteem. Emotional health is important because you need to be able to handle your emotions properly. You can improve your self-esteem by having friends that value and respect you. You can also provide positive self talk to remind yourself that you have purpose and are important.

Three ways to show support to someone who is grieving

Three ways to show support to someone who is grieving



Answer:


  1. Be an empathetic listener, 
  2. Help them recall happy memories, and
  3. Support them through the grieving process and don't rush them through it to "fix" their problems.


Two methods of treating mental illnesses.

Two methods of treating mental illnesses.



Answer: Behavior Therapy: a person that has a disorder gets rewarded for good behaviors. This encourages the person.
Group Therapy: people with similar issues get together and talk about their problems. This helps them relive feelings and see that they aren't alone and are supported.

How are major and minor depression similar and different?

How are major and minor depression similar and different?



Answer: They both increase the risk of suicide because they make people feel sad, helpless, and hopeless. But, major comes in strong bouts, whereas minor lasts a long time and is more consistent.

How are the five major food groups related to the major types of nutrients? How does this relationship help you make healthful food choices?

How are the five major food groups related to the major types of nutrients? How does this relationship help you make healthful food choices?



Answer: They all intertwine with each other. If you eat the correct amount or each food group, you will get the right amount of nutrients. Some food groups will contain more of a certain nutrient than another, but by eating correct proportions, it will balance out. By knowing this, you can eat correct proportions or recognize where you might be lacking and try to fix it by looking at resources like MyPyramid.

Compare and contrast the three types of fats.

Compare and contrast the three types of fats.



Answer: Saturated fats and trans fats are bad for your body and health. It can raise your cholesterol and therefore increase your risk of getting health problems such as hypertension, heart attacks, and high cholesterol. Saturated fats products include animal sources, such as meat or dairy. Trans fats products include vegetable oils, margarine, and certain junk foods. Unsaturated fats are good for you in moderate amounts. They lower bad cholesterol. Unsaturated fats products include vegetables, seeds, or nuts. These are similar, though, because they're all fat and have potential to be bad; they're a part of everyday life.

Why is a high fat diet considered to be low in nutrient density?

Why is a high fat diet considered to be low in nutrient density?



Answer: Fat has more calories per gram (9), compared to proteins and carbohydrates (4), which means that you get less food if your diet is high fat compared to if it was low fat with the same amount of calories. A low fat, nutrient dense diet is healthier because you fill up while eating fewer calories and you also get more nutrients.

water-soluble vs. fat-soluble vitamins
Water-soluble vitamins can be dissolved in water, which enables them to go into your bloodstream. Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in your fat.

What are two ways for identifying fad diets?

What are two ways for identifying fad diets?



Answer: if they say:
- "lose weight fast" or use words like miraculous or effortless
- involves no physical activity


What are two ways in which a healthful eating plan for an athlete differs from a healthful eating plan for a less-active teen? What are two ways in which they are similar?

What are two ways in which a healthful eating plan for an athlete differs from a healthful eating plan for a less-active teen? What are two ways in which they are similar?



Answer: An athlete needs more calories because they burn more and they also need more protein for muscle, and carbs for energy when it comes time to practice or compete. A less active teen needs fewer carbs and less protein and less calories because they do not have to be active. Their eating plans could be similar, though in the way that they need healthy fats (unsaturated) rather that trans or saturated, and they need nutrient-dense foods.

Compare and contrast the three forms of eating disorders that were discussed in the chapter.

Compare and contrast the three forms of eating disorders that were discussed in the chapter.



Answer: Anorexia vs. Bulimia: People with these both feel as though they are overweight and they therefore eat less and exercise more. But, anorexics just don't eat, and bulimics eat a lot, then puke it up.
Bulimia vs. Binge Eating: They both eat too much, but bulimics puke it up.
Those who are anorexic are underweight, bulimics are around the correct weight, and binge-eaters are overweight or obese.

If a teen has a poor body image, how will that affect their nutrition?

If a teen has a poor body image, how will that affect their nutrition?



Answer: It may make them feel as though they need to go on a diet (usually). But, a teen could also be underweight and want to gain weight, but they do it incorrectly. So, due to being uncomfortable with their bodies, they may develop eating disorders such as bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa, or binge eating disorders, causing them to get poor nutrition.

Explain what complications or side effects can occur if a teen begins to use performance enhancing drugs.

Explain what complications or side effects can occur if a teen begins to use performance enhancing drugs.



Answer: One drug, creatine, causes cramps and diarrhea when you use it and other complications when a higher dose is taken. Other drugs can cause heart issues. Due to the many side effects of many drugs, performance enhancers can do more harm to performance than what was originally there.

Define energy balance.

Define energy balance.



Answer: The amount of calories you eat to the amount of calories you burn. If you eat more than you burn, you'll gain weight and vice versa.

What is health quackery? What can a consumer do to avoid consumer fraud?

What is health quackery? What can a consumer do to avoid consumer fraud?



Answer: Health quackery is the practice of disseminating or supplying inaccurate health information, unreliable health care, or ineffective health products fro the purposes of defrauding another person. Most of the time, people will fall for consumer fraud when they have poor health. There are lots of false advertisements promising to cure diseases or weight loss. In order to avoid this, people should trust their physician and focus on traditional medical care.

Describe the similarities between allopathic and osteopathic physicians. What is an alternative health care practitioner? Give examples of the types of alternative practitioners.

Describe the similarities between allopathic and osteopathic physicians. What is an alternative health care practitioner? Give examples of the types of alternative practitioners.



Answer: MDs are with allopathy and DOs are with osteopathy. They both receive similar educations and engage in very similar forms of practice. Both can function as primary care physicians or as board-certified specialists. They both undergo a long training process and generally spend four or more years of intensive training for advanced studies in medical sciences or clinical practice. Alternative health care practitioners are alternatives to medical and osteopathic physician care. Examples are chiropractic, acupuncture, homeopathy, naturopathy, herbalism, reflexology, and ayurveda.

What are the three criteria that must be met by an OTC drug?

What are the three criteria that must be met by an OTC drug?



Answer: Over the counter drugs are placed into three categories (I, II, and III). These separate the drugs based on the safety and effectiveness of their active ingredients. Only category I drugs that are safe, effective, and truthfully labeled are to be sold without a prescription. This drug classification process also allows some OTC drugs to be made stronger and some prescription drugs to become nonprescription drugs by reducing their strength through reformulation. These OTC products reflect FDA requirements

What are the theories underlying acupuncture and ayurveda?

What are the theories underlying acupuncture and ayurveda?



Answer: Acupuncture is a system based on balancing the active and passive forces within the patient's body to strengthen the qi (chee), or life force. This process involves placing hair-thin needles at different points in the body to stimulate the patient's qi. When stimulated, it is said to help with the body to fight illness. On the other hand, ayurveda is an Indian preventive approach based on herbal remedies. This process focuses on the interplay of body, mind, and sprit. It is composed of qualities that reflect combinations of the five basic elements of life - space, air, fire, water, and earth. This treatment is directed towards eliminating impurities from the body through dietary changes, fasting, colonic cleansing of the gastrointestinal tract, and cleansing of the respiratory tract.

How do modeling and manipulation explain the development of emotional dependence on tobacco?

How do modeling and manipulation explain the development of emotional dependence on tobacco?



Answer: Modeling is the process of adopting the behavior patterns of a person one admires or has bonds with. An example would be a young person who struggles to resist peer pressure, or a young individual who is trying to gain a bond with others through tobacco. Manipulation provides a "tool" to offset boredom, anxiety, or stress. This enables people to feel they have the situation under control. It also gives people an outlet to go to when one is under stress.

What effect does nicotine have on the body outside of the central nervous system? How does the influence nicotine resemble that associated with the stress response?

What effect does nicotine have on the body outside of the central nervous system? How does the influence nicotine resemble that associated with the stress response?



Answer: Outside of the central nervous system, nicotine can send nerve faux impulses to muscles. Also, there will be an increase in respiration, blood pressure, heart rate, and coronary blood flow. Overall, the effects of nicotine are very similar to stress responses, due to these increases.

In comparison to cigarettes, what are the health risks associated with pipe and cigar smoking?

In comparison to cigarettes, what are the health risks associated with pipe and cigar smoking?



Answer: Cigarette smokers typically are more vulnerable to lung cancer, heart disease, or other diseases. In contrast, pipe and cigar smokers are susceptible to having cancer within the mouth, larynx, throat, and/or esophagus. With that being said, neither cigarette nor pipe and cigar smoking is safe. Also, not one particular side is better than the other since they are both dangerous.

What is the principle effect on carbon monoxide on cardiac function?

What is the principle effect on carbon monoxide on cardiac function?



Answer: Carbon monoxide bonds with hemoglobin which forms carboxyhemoglobin. As a result, this formation prevents hemoglobin, which is a pigment that carries oxygen, from spreading oxygen through the entire body. When this occurs, the cardiovascular function is impaired.

Differentiate among drug misuse, drug abuse, and drug dependence.

Differentiate among drug misuse, drug abuse, and drug dependence.



Answer: Drug misuse describes the use of drugs for a different reason than intended. For example, pain medication prescribed following a surgical procedure used for a high long to decrease pain is an example. Drug abuse is the use of drugs that puts ones health at risk. Drug dependence is where individuals develop an addiction to drugs where they will do anything to get their hands on the drug. In this case, people will feel withdrawals and could have physical or mental disruption, leading to odd behaviors.

What is BAC? Describe the general sequence of physiological events that takes place when a person drinks alcohol at a rate faster then the liver can oxidize it.

What is BAC? Describe the general sequence of physiological events that takes place when a person drinks alcohol at a rate faster then the liver can oxidize it.



Answer: BAC is an acronym for blood alcohol concentration which increases as alcohol is consumed faster than it can be removed by the liver. Once BAC increases above zero, one can see the beginning signs of alcohol as it affects both mood and behavior. People will begin to lose inhibitions as well as having impaired judgement. As BAC continues to rise, one may lose speech, vision, motor skills, and hearing. In most states, .08% alcohol level is the legal limit. The greater increase in BAC, the greater chance of acute intoxication. Generally, at .50% BAC, acute alcohol intoxication risk is significant. At .2%, individuals will become disoriented and could experience blackouts. If levels increase high enough, people could experience death after falling into a coma.

Define the word tolerance. What does cross-tolerance mean? Give an example of cross-tolerance.

Define the word tolerance. What does cross-tolerance mean? Give an example of cross-tolerance.



Answer: Tolerance is an acquired reaction to a drug; continued intake of the same dose has diminished effect. Cross-tolerance is the transfer of tolerance from one drug to another within the same general category. An example of cross-tolerance could be an individual who is a heavy alcoholic who would need a preoperative sedative to become relaxed prior to surgery in comparison to an average person.

Identify and explain the various factors that influence the absorption of alcohol. Why is it important to be aware of these factors?

Identify and explain the various factors that influence the absorption of alcohol. Why is it important to be aware of these factors?



Answer: Several factors can influence the absorption of alcohol. Beginning with alcohol concentration, this occurs when greater alcohol content in a drink is absorbed. The more drinks consumed, the more alcohol is consumed. If consumed rather quickly, absorption of alcohol quickly gets into an individual's system. Carbonation within these drinks can also accelerate absorption. Food can also directly influence the absorption of alcohol because it helps dilute the alcohol; water also has this affect. Genetics can have an impact on alcohol absorption due to addictions within the family. Gender also influences absorption. Females typically absorb alcohol in their blood streams at a higher rate compared to males. These factors are vital for individuals to be aware of so one may not develop alcoholism, or be able to control their intake to be safe.

Identify and explain the three steps in the process of addiction.

Identify and explain the three steps in the process of addiction.



Answer: The process of addiction begins with exposure. Once exposed, individuals will likely return to it and continue to try it. Furthermore, the second step is compulsion. This leads to addiction because individuals develop a behavior where they must have more of the drug or whatever it may be. At this point, the individual's quality of life begins to decrease, withdrawal increases, and the drug becomes an interference with daily activities. Lastly, the third step is loss of control. This is where people ruin their lives by trying to experience another level of feeling high. The need for the drug is so high, people will go out of their way to try and get the drug.

What information can be obtained from our current food labels?

What information can be obtained from our current food labels?



Answer: Based on current food labels, individuals can find out the origin of meats, fish, vegetables, fruits, etc. In some cases, you can see whether or not milk has growth hormones from the cows. Also, individuals are able to find out how many calories, grams of fat, cholesterol, proteins, vitamins, carbohydrates, or other ingredients added.

What is the principal role of protein in the body? How can complete protein be obtained by people who eat few or no animal products?

What is the principal role of protein in the body? How can complete protein be obtained by people who eat few or no animal products?



Answer: The principal role of proteins in the body are for growth and maintenance of tissue. Also, it is used as a source of energy and acid base balance in the body. People who obtain few or no animal products must learn how to provide complete proteins in their body by eating a certain diet of incomplete proteins, such as grains, seeds, legumes, etc.

What is the recommendation for daily fluid intake?

What is the recommendation for daily fluid intake?



Answer: The recommendation for daily fluid intake is 2.7 liters per day for women and 3.7 liters per day for men. This can vary depending on the height, weight, metabolism, and diet of the individual. Also, it is said the average person can lose up to 10 cups of water per day from sweating, urinating, etc.

What functions do minerals have in the body? What is a trace element?

What functions do minerals have in the body? What is a trace element?



Answer: Minerals serve as structural elements which regulate body processes such as muscle contraction, red blood cell formation, and blood clotting. Minerals are essential for metabolic processes and good health. Trace elements are small minerals in the body that can be gained from a balanced diet. These include zinc, copper, iron, iodine, and selenium which is necessary for good health.

Name five psychological tools for stress management and explain how they work?

Name five psychological tools for stress management and explain how they work?




Answer:


Exercise - By exercising for around 20-30 minutes per workout for at least three times a week can help with stress.

Sleep - Resting for 7-8 hours per night is considered ideal for monitoring stress. Too much or too little sleep can lead to an increase in stress.

Nutrition - A proper diet can be beneficial to reducing stress. Poor diets can affect energy and lead to an increase in stress.

Mind-Body Approaches - Certain therapy, acupuncture, or medicine are good ways to reduce stress and increase relaxation.

Relaxation and Deep Breathing - This can be very beneficial for individuals dealing with stress because it can calm people and soothe the mind.

List at least five unique stressors students can experience.

List at least five unique stressors students can experience.



Answer:


  1. Internal stressors (perfectionism, time management, procrastination)
  2. Anxiety
  3. Learning new customs and traditions
  4. Leaving comfortable and familiar surroundings
  5. Relationship problems


What is stress? How is it linked to your physical and psychological health?

What is stress? How is it linked to your physical and psychological health?



Answer: Stress is the physical and psychological state of disruption caused by an event.
Stress can have a physical and mental affect on individuals through various symptoms. Stress can lead to headaches, stomachaches, tension, irritable/depressed moods, and lack of energy. Too much stress can lead to serious issues, such as heart problems, exhaustion, health issues, etc.

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